Hello everyone,
I hope you dont mind asking this question, it has been playing on my mind.
I received a copy of my path report and I have been analysising it… maybe a little too much.
The histology laboratory description, I have been trying to break down and understand and I was wondering if they have maybe over diagnosed my biopsy (clutching at straws)
I understand that a large number of atypical melanocytic lesions fall into a boarderline area, does my biopsy description sound like this? Should I get a second opinion?
Here is some of my pathlogy report, I am based in the UK:-
The excision biopsy of skin contains atypical predominantly junctional but focally compound melanocytic lesion.
It is non-uncerated although there is some thinning/consumption of the epidermis.
The juncation component shows features of an in-situ melanoma of superficial spreading subtype with large atypical melanocytes showing some suprabasal spread singly and in nest.
Beneath this there is much chronic inflammation and pigment incontinence with regression with a thickness of 0.6mm
In addition, within this inflammed area, there is a focal invasive melanoma component
Breslow 0.57mm
Invasion present – invasive melanoma
mitotic index – 1
Growth – Vertical
TIL – Brisk
Ulceration – not identified
Microsatellite/in-transit metastasis – not identified
in-situ component – clear 2.3mm
invasive component peripheral – clear 4.4mm
invasive compnent deep – clear 6.8mm
.
