Hi,
I had a mole removed a month ago and was diagnosed with invasive superficial spreading malignant melanoma. I went back a couple of week later for a wide local excision and I had the stiches out 2 weeks ago. I have just managed to get a copy of my first pathology report and it says the following:
Ellipse of skin measuring 16x7mm with 4mm of underlying tissue. On surface there is a slightly raised roughened pigmented area measuring 5x5mm
HISTOLOGY
The sections show skin with underlying adipose tissue and containing invasive/vertical growth phase superficial spreading malignant melanoma.
It is predominantly in situ but there is focal regression. The small amount of invasive melanoma has a Breslow thickness of 0.4mm and infiltrates the dermis the Clark's level II.
No vascular invasion is seen.
There is a moderate tumour associated lymphoid infiltrate.
Dermal mitotic figures are not seen.
There is no surface ucleration and satellite lesions are not present.
The lesion appears completly excised with the nearest transverse margin at 2mm and the deep margin at 4.5mm from the invasive component.
I have a couple of questions and would appreciate it if anybody could help me:
1. Does Invasive and Vertical Growth Phase mean the same thing?
2. If it has had regression, does that mean it could have been deeper before my immune system attacked it and therefore could have already gone elsewhere?
3. It says the deep margins is clear by 4.5mm but it says only 4mm of underlying tissue was removed and if bresolow thickness 0.4mm then that doest add up exactly.
4. Should I have had my glands checked as I havent and I will be getting them checked in 3 months time?
I may be looking in to this all too much but ive felt so unwell with asthma and stomach pains, it makes my imagination run away with me and I start wondering if its maybe something worse.
.
